Mechanical Written Practice Test

1. A mechanical system for mechanical power transmission does not _______.

A) Generate power B) Convert energy C) Create energy D) Transmit power

2. A soft foot condition on a motor mount should be corrected by _______.

A) Tightening the bolts B) Shimming the feet C) Replacing the motor D) Adding oil

3. The function of a machine shaft is to _______.

A) Transmit power or motion B) Store energy C) Provide support D) Convert heat into motion

4. The coupling provides a secure method of transmitting _______ from one shaft to

A) Speed B) Torque C) Energy D) Vibration

5. One important characteristic of a timing belt is that _______.

A) It is flexible B) It provides synchronous power transmission C) It is used for high-speed transmission D) It works without tension

6. A V-belt should ride _______ in the groove with its top near the top of the sheave; the

A) Low, touches the bottom B) High, does not touch the bottom C) High, touches the sides D) Low, rides in the center

7. Multiple-strand roller chain-drives are used _______.

A) To transmit low power B) To transmit high power C) In small machines D) For power distribution

8. The purpose of the idler gear is to either _______ of the driven gear or transfer

A) Change the speed ratio B) Change the direction of rotation C) Increase torque D) Provide lubrication

9. Backlash is the _______.

A) Force applied to gears B) Clearance or play between mating gear teeth C) Speed difference between gears D) Tension in the gear mesh

10. Backlash can be changed by _______.

A) Using larger gears B) Adjusting the center distance between gears or using adjustable gears C) Adding lubrication D) Changing the gear material

11. The actual backlash between two spur gears can be measured using which of

A) Vernier calipers B) Dial indicator, feeler gauge C) Micrometer D) Torque wrench

12. As a V-belt sheave becomes worn, the V-belt _______.

A) Rides higher in the groove B) Rides lower in the groove C) Slips out of the sheave D) Becomes tight

13. Improper shaft alignment is a major cause of?

A) Vibration, noise, and premature wear of bearings and seals B) Reduced motor efficiency C) Higher energy consumption D) Increased lubrication needs

14. Dropping a bearing on the floor will probably _______ its run life.

A) Increase B) Reduce C) Not affect D) Double

15. With a measurement of 5 in. and a tolerance of ±.003, what would be the

A) Minimum: 5.003 in., Maximum: 5.003 in. B) Minimum: 4.997 in., Maximum: 5.003 in. C) Minimum: 4.997 in., Maximum: 5.000 in. D) Minimum: 5.000 in., Maximum: 5.006 in.

16. It is best to follow a torque pattern when tightening flange fittings.

A) True B) False

17. Temperature affects lubricant, how?

A) It increases its viscosity B) It decreases its viscosity C) Temperature can change the viscosity and effectiveness of the lubricant D) It has no effect on lubricant

18. If 1 ft lb = 12 in lb, 6 in lb would equal?

A) 0.5 ft lb B) 1 ft lb C) 2 ft lb D) 6 ft lb

19. Shaft run out is usually checked with a:

A) Vernier caliper B) Micrometer C) Dial indicator D) Torque wrench

20. Uneven wear on a belt, sheave, sprocket, or chain is a sign of:

A) Over-tightening B) Misalignment C) Lack of lubrication D) Excessive load

21. Root Cause Analysis refers to:

A) Identifying the symptoms of a problem B) Identifying the fundamental reason for a problem C) Finding the immediate cause of a failure D) Determining how to fix the problem temporarily

22. Where are rigid couplings used?

A) Where flexible movement is needed B) Where precise alignment and minimal movement are required C) In high-torque applications D) To absorb shock and vibration

23. Why should the air distribution piping be slightly sloped downward in the

A) To prevent corrosion B) To allow condensate to drain C) To increase airflow D) To prevent air leaks

24. Most four-way air valves have how many ports?

A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six

25. A _____ is a visual format used to communicate the information from engineers

A) Diagram B) Flowchart C) Blueprint D) Manual

26. A(n) _____ drawing shows three or more views of a part or component on the

A) Isometric B) Single-view C) Multi-view D) Exploded-view

27. On a multi-view drawing, a(n) _____ line is shown using a solid line.

A) Hidden B) Object C) Center D) Section

28. A _____ drawing indicates how much a drawing has been reduced or enlarged

A) Isometric B) Scale C) Section D) Exploded-view

29. A(n) _____ drawing shows how a group of parts fit together to form a component.

A) Assembly B) Detail C) Section D) Perspective

30. A slip fit and a press fit mean that the same procedure is followed.

A) True B) False

31. Unless a specific grade is required for safety reasons, it is OK to use a better

A) True B) False

32. You need a rigid coupling for an application using 10 HP with a max speed of

A) Gear coupling B) Jaw coupling C) Grid coupling D) Lovejoy coupling

33. Which coupling allows the most angular misalignment?

A) Jaw coupling B) Gear coupling C) Oldham coupling D) Universal coupling

34. Could you use a chain coupling in an application involving shock loads?

A) Yes B) No

35. For an application using 1200 HP, a max speed of 5850 RPM, angular

A) Flexible coupling B) Jaw coupling C) Grid coupling D) Universal coupling

36. A Rubber-In Shear coupling has a measured angular misalignment of two

A) Yes, it is within tolerances. B) No, it exceeds the tolerances.

37. Which Flex Metal coupling could be used with an angular misalignment of 10°

A) Bellow coupling B) Laminated coupling C) Disc coupling D) Oldham coupling

38. Whether aligning sprockets, sheaves, or couplings, there are 2 common types

A) Radial and axial misalignment B) Angular and parallel misalignment C) Lateral and vertical misalignment D) Dynamic and static misalignment

39. If shafts are parallel and pulleys are perpendicular to shafts and are aligned,

A) True B) False

40. On a multiple belt system, if one belt needs to be replaced, is it allowable to

A) Yes, replace only the defective belt B) No, all belts should be replaced in a multiple belt system C) Yes, replace the defective belt and check others D) No, only replace the belt with the most wear

41. For a used Cross Section BX un-notched belt with the smallest sheave diameter

A) 3.5 B) 4.5 C) 5.0 D) 6.0

42. For a used Cross Section 3VX notched belt with the smallest sheave diameter

A) 4.5 B) 5.6 C) 6.7 D) 7.2

43. A FHP V-Belt with a Width of 3/8 and a Height of 7/32 would have a code of?

A) 3L B) 4L C) A D) B

44. A Conventional V-Belt with a Width of 7/8 and a Height of 17/32 would have a

A) A B) B C) C D) D

45. What would be the belt length if the distance between centers is 22", sheave

A) 68.7" B) 72.7" C) 75.0" D) 78.3"

46. Distance between centers 32", sheave one diameter 5", sheave two diameter 7"

A) 80" B) 83" C) 86" D) 90"

47. During routine maintenance of a belt and sheave system, it is noticed that the

A) Excessive lubrication B) Belt slippage or excessive wear C) Over-tightening of the belt D) Misalignment of the sheaves

48. This sheave shows what type of wear?

A) Wear on the sides of the sheave grooves indicates normal wear B) Wear on the sides of the sheave grooves indicates misalignment C) Wear on the sides of the sheave grooves indicates excessive loading D) Wear on the sides of the sheave grooves indicates improper installation

49. When mounting an angular contact bearing, the shaft thrust should move from

A) Inner race to the outer race B) Outer race to the inner race C) Top race to the bottom race D) Shaft to the bearing housing

50. Sealed bearings never require lubricant during installation.

A) True B) False

51. After an old bearing is removed, what is the next step?

A) Clean the shaft B) Inspect the shaft and housing C) Install a new bearing D) Lubricate the housing

52. Double-Row Angular Contact Ball Bearing

A) Provides high radial and axial stiffness and can handle loads in both directions B) Provides high radial stiffness but cannot handle axial loads C) Can only handle radial loads D) Only supports loads in one direction

53. Double-Row Deep Groove Ball Bearing

A) Carries high radial loads and some axial loads in both directions B) Carries axial loads only C) Carries radial loads only D) Cannot handle radial loads

54. Single-Row Angular Contact Bearing

A) Supports high axial loads in one direction and moderate radial loads B) Supports high radial loads and some axial loads C) Handles both axial and radial loads in both directions D) Cannot handle axial loads

55. Self-Aligning Ball Bearing

A) Accommodates shaft misalignment and deflection B) Cannot handle shaft misalignment C) Only supports radial loads D) Handles axial loads in one direction only

56. A Double-row deep groove ball bearing would have a Bearing type code of?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 7

57. Angular contact ball bearing would have a Bearing type code of?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 9

58. For Medium - 300 series Dimension series code?

A) This question is incomplete and cannot be answered without additional B) 300 C) 600 D) 700

59. For Heavy - 400 series Dimension series code?

A) This question is incomplete and cannot be answered without additional B) 400 C) 800 D) 1000

60. The use of various sensors and electronic measuring devices to check on the

A) Vibration analysis B) Condition monitoring C) Predictive maintenance D) Thermal imaging

61. For operating speeds at or above 1750 rpm, fill the bearing and housing full of

A) True B) False

62. Welding _______ require safety equipment and clothing.

A) never B) only for large projects C) always D) only for specific metals

63. For a quick, small weld, a flash curtain is not required. True or False?

A) True B) False

64. An electric unit that is connected to the earth is said to be:

A) grounded B) insulated C) live D) protected

65. All base metals should be ________ before welding.

A) heated B) painted C) cleaned D) cooled

66. Surfacing, plug, fillet, square groove, bevel groove, V-groove are:

A) Types of welding rods B) Types of welding electrodes C) Types of welds D) Types of welding machines

67. Shielded metal arc welding is often referred to as:

A) MIG welding B) Stick welding C) TIG welding D) Oxy-fuel welding

68. All stick welding electrodes can be used with both AC and DC current. True or

A) True B) False

69. Types of welding current include:

A) AC and DC B) AC and pulse C) DC and high-frequency D) Alternating and direct

70. What can be done if the stick continues to stick to the part instead of melting

A) Increase the amperage B) Decrease the amperage C) Switch to a different electrode D) Both A and C

71. Proper PPE for Oxy-Acetylene Welding should include:

A) Safety goggles and gloves B) Leather gloves, glasses and face shield, leather apron, and steel toe boots C) Cotton clothing and welding gloves D) No special PPE required

72. Oxygen regulators will have the same thread size as acetylene regulators. True

A) True B) False

73. It is OK to perform oxy-fuel cutting on an empty container without venting the

A) True B) False

74. All cutting nozzles are the same and rarely need to be cleaned. True or False?

A) True B) False

75. It is best to over-torque nozzle and hose fittings. True or False?

A) True B) False

76. Tank position is not important, upright or on their side makes no difference.

A) True B) False

77. Ventilation is not important when oxy-fuel cutting in an enclosed space

A) True B) False

78. You can leave the protective cap off a gas cylinder if you are only moving it a

A) True B) False

79. Hoses should be protected from:

A) Excessive heat B) Water C) Damage D) Dust

80. Which should be turned on first?

A) Oxygen B) Gas C) Flame D) Acetylene

81. It is OK to use a match or lighter to light the torch. True or False?

A) True B) False

82. When cutting, the tip of the torch should be slightly angled in the direction of

A) True B) False

83. When pure oxygen is combined with fuel gases and ignited, the pure oxygen

A) Low heat B) Intense heat C) Light D) No heat

84. Oxygen and Acetylene tanks should always be stored standing up and chained

A) True B) False

85. Three major types of chain are:

A) Roller, silent, engineered B) Roller, block, pin C) Silent, engineered, open D) Heavy, light, medium

86. Which is NOT a type of sprocket?

A) Driver B) Idler C) Tension D) Guide

87. The driver sprocket above is turning counter-clockwise, the wear identified is:

A) On the left side of the sprocket teeth B) On the right side of the sprocket teeth C) Even wear across all teeth D) No wear detected

88. It is common for roller chains to stretch.

A) True B) False

89. The wear shown above is from:

A) Lack of lubrication B) High-speed operation C) Misalignment D) Excessive tension

90. The wear shown above is from:

A) Abrasive material B) Excessive lubrication C) Incorrect chain type D) Lack of tension

91. Quick connect fittings have this type of valve built in:

A) Check B) Ball C) Needle D) Pressure relief

92. This type of fitting is used when you want to connect two circuits to a single

A) Tee B) Elbow C) Coupling D) Adapter

93. A Directional Control Valve is used to:

A) Regulate pressure B) Control flow direction C) Filter air D) Cool fluids

94. A hydraulic pump produces:

A) Pressure B) Flow C) Force D) Speed

95. The main function of a needle valve is to:

A) Control pressure B) Control flow C) Stop leakage D) Filter fluids

96. The retracting force capability of a differential cylinder is ____ its extending

A) Greater than B) Equal to C) Less than D) Unpredictable

97. Cylinders are said to be synchronized when they:

A) Have the same pressure B) Move together C) Have the same size D) Move at different speeds

98. A ____ accumulator has a bladder that can expand and contract quickly:

A) Hydraulic B) Gas-charged C) Spring-loaded D) Pneumatic

99. Working on a hydraulic system that is pressurized is OK because it is only oil.

A) True B) False

100. What type of gas is preferred for a gas-charged accumulator?

A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Air D) Carbon dioxide

101. In the above, when DCV moves in the direction of the arrow the piston in the

A) Move outward B) Move inward C) Stay still D) Without the schematic, it's impossible to determine the piston's movement

102. In the above, when DCV is moved back to center the piston in the cylinder

A) Move outward B) Move inward C) Stay still D) Without the schematic, it's impossible to determine the piston's movement

103. In the above, which DCV will send both A and B back only to tank when in the

A) Single-acting valve B) Double-acting valve C) 4/3 valve D) Without the schematic, it's impossible to determine which DCV will do this

104. You can use a fitting or hose rated for high pressure on lower pressure

A) True B) False

105. Dangers from a leak in a hydraulic system include:

A) High-pressure fluid injection injuries, fire/explosion hazards, slipping hazards, B) Rust damage and oil leakage C) Excessive noise and pressure drops D) None of the above

106. In the schematic above, the part marked as part A is:

A) A pump B) A valve C) A filter D) Without the schematic, the part marked A cannot be identified. More information

107. In the schematic above, the part marked as part B is:

A) A pump B) A valve C) A filter D) Without the schematic, the part marked B cannot be identified. More information

108. Why should the pump inlet resistance be minimized?

A) To prevent cavitation and ensure efficient pump operation B) To increase the pump pressure C) To reduce the pump flow rate D) To prevent overheating

109. How many full-size 2 X 4 ft. pieces can be cut from one 4 X 7 ft piece of stock?

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

110. How many 1 X 2 ft. rectangles will it take to cover 16 square feet?

A) Six B) Seven C) Eight D) Ten

111. One 4 X 8 ft. piece of stock will cover how many square feet?

A) 24 square feet B) 32 square feet C) 48 square feet D) 64 square feet

112. 64 square ft. will require how many 4 X 8 pieces of stock?

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

113. One room is 10 X 15 ft. Another room is 12 X 20 ft. What is the total square

A) 250 square feet B) 390 square feet C) 420 square feet D) 450 square feet

114. A drainage pipe needs to drop ⅛ inch per foot. A run of 10 feet will drop:

A) 1 inch B) 1 1/4 inches C) 1 1/2 inches D) 2 inches

115. A job requires 2,000 ft. of wire total. The wire only comes on 300 ft. rolls. How

A) Five B) Six C) Seven D) Eight

116. You have a piece of stock that is 12 ft. You cut one piece 2.5 ft. and another

A) 2.5 ft B) 3 ft C) 3.5 ft D) 4 ft

117. A 100-meter roll of wire has 37 meters removed from it. How much is left on

A) 53 meters B) 60 meters C) 63 meters D) 75 meters

118. A 100-meter roll of wire has 25% of the wire used. How much is left on the roll?

A) 50 meters B) 55 meters C) 75 meters D) 80 meters

119. Three 2 X 8 pieces of stock will cover how many square feet?

A) 32 square feet B) 48 square feet C) 56 square feet D) 64 square feet

120. If a machine requires a footprint of 16 X 4 ft. and an open area of 3 ft. on all

A) 200 sq ft B) 220 sq ft C) 286 sq ft D) 320 sq ft

121. If one gallon of coating will cover 105 square feet. How many gallons will it

A) 10 gallons B) 11 gallons C) 12 gallons D) 13 gallons

122. If one box of nails will attach 150 square feet of siding, how many boxes will it

A) 9 boxes B) 10 boxes C) 11 boxes D) 12 boxes

123. Spindle speeds that are too fast can cause what?

A) Excessive heat, tool wear, and damage to the workpiece B) A smoother finish C) Faster production D) None of the above

124. The faster you cut threads, the better?

A) True B) False

125. If the needed hole is larger than 5 inches, you should?

A) Use boring tools or a larger drill bit in stages B) Use a smaller drill bit C) Drill it all at once D) Use a hammer and chisel

126. The end on a tap for a blind hole will be?

A) A tapered tap B) A bottoming tap C) A plug tap D) A spiral tap

127. The procedure for drilling a precision hole in metal should be?

A) Drill with the largest bit B) Measure and mark, center punch, start with a smaller size drill and work up, and C) Drill directly to final size D) Skip the center punch step

128. Name the types of drill bits A.

A) Twist drill, Spade drill, Step drill B) Carbide drill, Masonry drill, Flat drill C) Cone drill, Countersink drill, Spade drill D) Ball end mill, Core drill, Twist drill

129. Name the types of drill bits B.

A) Reamer, Brad point, Spade drill B) Twist drill, Flat drill, Step drill C) Flat end mill, Ball end drill, Countersink D) Masonry drill, Forstner bit, Twist drill

130. Name the types of drill bits C.

A) Countersink, Core drill, Step drill B) Auger, Twist drill, Center drill C) Step drill, Hole saw, Brad point D) Core drill, Spade drill, Flat drill

131. Which gear is used when large gear reductions are needed?

A) Spur gear B) Worm gear C) Helical gear D) Bevel gear A) They produce axial thrust and require thrust bearings B) They operate noiselessly C) They are less efficient than spur gears D) They have higher manufacturing costs

133. One advantage of helical gears over a standard spur gear is?

A) They operate at higher speeds B) They operate more smoothly and quietly C) They have lower manufacturing costs D) They are simpler to install

134. The function of a right-angle gear drive is to transmit motion and power to a shaft

A) True B) False

135. Using the example (to find driven RPM), a gear drive has a 12-tooth driver and

A) 600 RPM B) 480 RPM C) 720 RPM D) 360 RPM

136. Using the above example (to find driven RPM), the output speed of a worm gear

A) 300 RPM B) 250 RPM C) 200 RPM D) 150 RPM

137. In the above, the idler gear is used to?

A) Increase the gear ratio B) Change the direction of rotation C) Maintain the direction of rotation or adjust the distance between gears D) Reduce the rotational speed

138. With a center distance of 25" and a normal diametral pitch of 6.5", the

A) 0.010-0.020 inches B) 0.015-0.025 inches C) 0.020-0.030 inches D) 0.025-0.035 inches

139. With a center distance of 15" and a normal diametral pitch of 8.5", the

A) 0.010-0.020 inches B) 0.015-0.025 inches C) 0.020-0.030 inches D) 0.025-0.035 inches

140. Which of the following gears is most commonly used for transmitting high torque

A) Helical gear B) Herringbone gear C) Bevel gear D) Spur gear

141. Which type of gear has teeth that are arranged in two opposite spirals?

A) Helical gear B) Herringbone or double helical gear C) Bevel gear D) Spur gear

142. Which gear is designed to transmit motion between two shafts that are at right

A) Helical gear B) Herringbone gear C) Bevel gear D) Spur gear

143. Which type of gear has straight teeth that are parallel to the axis of the gear?

A) Helical gear B) Herringbone gear C) Bevel gear D) Spur gear

144. With a nominal shaft diameter of 3", what would be the nominal key size width?

A) 1/4" B) 1/2" C) 3/4" D) 1"

145. With a nominal shaft diameter of ½", what would be the nominal key size

A) 1/8" B) 3/16" C) 1/4" D) 3/8"

146. What part of a centrifugal pump creates flow by converting mechanical energy

A) Impeller B) Shaft C) Discharge valve D) Motor

147. Why do centrifugal pumps often require priming?

A) To prevent cavitation B) To create suction C) To prevent overheating D) To maintain constant pressure

148. How can the flow rate of a centrifugal pump be reduced?

A) By increasing the motor speed B) By throttling the discharge valve C) By increasing the pump size D) By decreasing the input pressure

149. What can cause a centrifugal pump to fail or become damaged?

A) Overheating B) Cavitation C) Increased flow D) Excessive lubrication

150. What type of pump is commonly used for constant flow, regardless of pressure?

A) Centrifugal pump B) Positive displacement pump C) Gear pump D) Vane pump

151. Which type of pump has a fixed volume and increases pressure by trapping a fixed

A) Centrifugal pump B) Positive displacement pump C) Gear pump D) Vane pump

152. What does the turbine-type flow-meter measure?

A) Flow pressure B) Flow velocity C) Fluid temperature D) Fluid viscosity

153. What is the effect of separating two solid objects with a liquid?

A) Increases friction B) Reduces friction C) Increases pressure D) Reduces pressure

154. Lubricant thickness is referred to as:

A) Density B) Viscosity C) Adhesion D) Tension

155. The most often used grease is ________ because it provides excellent lubrication

A) Lithium grease B) Silicone grease C) Multi-purpose grease D) Calcium grease

156. If a machine is operated at higher temperatures than the oil is rated for, ________.

A) The oil will last longer B) The oil will degrade faster C) The oil will remain stable D) The machine will run more efficiently

157. Grease never needs to be changed or checked.

A) True B) False

158. Drip lubricating systems are self-regulating.

A) True B) False

159. It is not necessary to clean oil or grease points before filling.

A) True B) False

160. When lubricating, one should push fresh lube into the bearing until ________.

A) The bearing becomes hot B) Deteriorated grease is observed being purged from the bearing seals C) The grease overflows D) The bearing runs smoothly

161. Using the above chart, as temperature increases, ________.

A) Viscosity increases B) Viscosity decreases C) Oil degradation decreases D) Oil degradation remains constant

162. Packing a bearing housing 1/3 to ⅔ full of grease is generally too little grease.

A) True B) False

163. Which type of mechanical seal has the highest maximum surface speed?

A) Gas Lift Seals B) Cartridge Seals C) Single Mechanical Seals D) Double Mechanical Seals

164. Which type of mechanical seal has the highest maximum pressure?

A) Elastomer Seals B) Carbon Seals C) Metal Bellows Seals D) V-ring Seals

165. The image above shows a ________ seal.

A) Mechanical seal B) O-ring seal C) Lip seal D) (This question requires an image for identification and cannot be answered

166. A single vertical hitch can be used if the load has an adequate attachment point.

A) True B) False

167. The choker sling above is rated for ______ lifting capacity than/as the single

A) More B) Less C) Equal D) Not applicable

168. Taglines need only be used on loads which exceed 10,000 lbs.

A) True B) False

169. Before a rigger can select the length and capacity of slings needed to lift a load,

A) Shape and material B) Weight and center of gravity C) Dimensions and weight D) Weight and temperature

170. Which wire rope in the picture above has the clips properly installed?

A) Both B) Neither C) The one on the left D) The one on the right

171. The bolt grade is displayed on the bolt head by a series of bars or slashes. Adding

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

172. A taper pin creates a secure and accurately located assembly through ______

A) Friction B) Compression C) Adhesion D) Tension

173. Shear pins are made of a ______ material than the parts in which they are

A) Stronger B) Weaker C) Similar D) More rigid